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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 22:16

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Is Melania still angry that she failed as a model? Why is she so cold and hostile? Why did she blame everyone for her actions in her trite book?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

How do I complain on a boy coming to marriage with me without my involvement despite no connection with him though he had an illegal affair?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Can you give an example of a documentary where the person telling the story believed it to be true, but it turned out to be false?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.